UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers SOLVED PAPER JUNE 2023
Q. 1 to 25 Click
Q26 to 50
Q.26. What number would replace question mark (?) in
the series given below?
3, 8, 17, 32, 57, ?, 177
(a) 100
(b) 89
(c) 95
(d) 106
26. Option (a) is correct.
3 = 21
+ 12
8 = 22
+ 22
17 = 23
+ 32
32 = 24
+ 42
57 = 25
+ 52
Hence, 26
+ 62
= 100
Q.27. What are the various salient features of formative
evaluation?
(A) It provides feed back to the teachers to use
teaching strategies according to the needs of
the learners
(B) It helps learners to actively and continuously
engage in learning
(C) It helps in enhancing the learning abilities of
the learner
(D) It contributes to the overall grading and
certification of the learner
(E) It ‘sums-up’ how much a students has learnt
over a period of time.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(a) B, D & E only
(b) C & E only
(c) A, B & C only
(d) A & D only
27. Option (a) is correct.
Formative evaluation is to evaluate the
performance or test the performance of the
students at various time between and after the
completion of course evaluation is of various types
they are:
Formative evaluation: Formative valuation refers
to the evaluation which is aimed in formation of
concepts in the mind of learners. This evaluation
is done after completion of a unit or chapter to
identify the problems in learning and to solve
them. They can be in the form of a unit test. This
is done throughout the course to identify the gaps
and improve the learners.
It helps to identify overall grade and performance
of learning of students / learners.
• Diagnostic evaluation is done before formative assessment; this is to analyze the learning
difficulties between the classes.
• Summative evaluation or summative
assessment is a standard test for evaluating
the learners. Summative assessment is done
at the end of the instructional period of course
completion; this is to identify the students’
knowledge skills and proficiency about the
course.
• Norm based evaluation: Norm refers to the
group that has norm based evaluation is the
evaluation of comparison with the group.
Q.28. Match List I with List II
LIST I (Three Approaches of Education) LIST II (Disciplinary Aspects)
A. Teacher- centred I. Shared, Participatory
B. Learner- centred II. Imposed
C. Learning- centred III. Self-controlled
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(a) A-III, B-II, C-I
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I
28. Option (d) is correct.
Teacher centered education: In this type of
education or classroom, teacher has the primary
role and the instructions and content is imposed.
This system is used in the early stage of schooling
or learning.
Learner centered education: This system is learner
oriented and a psychological system of education.
Learning centered education: Here, concept
clearance and understanding is focused by
developing reflective and understanding levels.
Q.29. Which one of the following is included while
estimating Air Quality Index (AQI)?
(a) N2O Nitrous oxide
(b) NO2 Nitrogen dioxide
(c) N2O3 Dinitrogen trioxide
(d) N2O5 Dinitrogen pentoxide
29. Option (b) is correct.
For measuring AQI or Air Quality Index, following
are included:
1. Particulate matter (PM) 10, PM 2. 5
2. Ozone (O3)
3. Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
4. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
5. Carbon monoxide (CO)
6. Lead (Pb)
7. Ammonia (NH3)
UGC NET Previous Year Question
Q.30. Match List I with List II
| LIST I
(Fallacies) |
LIST II
(Description) |
| A. Bandwagon Argument | I. Arguer misrepresents an opponent’s position. |
| B. Strawman Argument | II. Arguer assumes the point to be proven. |
| C. Red herring Argument | III. Arguer appeals to reader’s or listener’s desire to be accepted or valued |
| D. Begging the question | IV. Arguer tries to distract the attention of the audience by raising irrelevant issue |
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
1. Option (c) is correct.
Types of fallacies;-
- Ad misericordiam is a fallacy when a conclusion is drawn with the impact of emotion or an unfortunate conclusion.
- Fallacy of division is an informal fallacy according to the fallacy, if a statement is accepted by everyone it should be true. For example- if everyone in the society things that God exists, called must exist.
- Example of Fallacy of Composition can be “Trees Are made up of cells, cells are not visible to eyes therefore trees are not visible to eyes.“ According to this fallacy, conclusion is drawn as whole only with a part.
- Ad Populum: It is the fallacy or effect in which something is accepted just because all other people agree on This is also called the Bandwagon effect. For example: Everybody in the class has decided to do engineering hands. Engineering is a good field.
- Ad Verecundian: Appeal to authority or accepting something because it comes from any authority or powerful person.
- Straw Man fallacy: This is a miss presentation by someone to make it easier to attack if a mother says that you have to finish the veggies if you want dessert and the sun replies you love me only when I eat food.
- The Hasty Generalization fallacy: This policy occurs when someone drives an expensive conclusion based on educated evidence. For example, everything you do is different from That’s how, I know you are always doing wrong.
- Policy of slippery slope: This is also known as absurd and extrapolation.
- Bandwagon argument: When an argument is considered true as it is popular or considered true by many people.
- Red Herring Argument: When a misleading statement or argument is presented to distract the opposition.
- Begging the question: When the arguer assumed the point to be proven in the
Q.31. Which of the following is a chemical treatment in water treatment process?
(a) Filtration
(b) Sedimentation
(c) Coagulation
(d) Screening
1. Option (c) is correct.
Coagulation is a chemical treatment for the water resource treatment process other given options are physical treatment for water treatment process.
Q32. There are fifteen successive percentage discounts given
in a series of 2%, 4%, 6%, 8% _____ on an item. After
how many such percentage discounts in succession
will the effective discount be higher than 50%?
- 7th
- 10th
- 8th
- 6th
Option (c) is correct.
Let the price is, 100
By calculating the successive consecutive discounts- 2% discount
Price = 100 – 2% = 98
4% discount
Price = 98 – 4% = 94.08
6% discount
Price = 94.08 – 6% = 88.44
8% discount
Price = 88.44 – 8% = 81.36
10% discount
Price = 81.36 – 10% = 73.22
12% discount
Price = 73.22 – 12% = 64.43
14% discount
Price = 64.43 – 14% = 55.41
16% discount
Price = 55.41 – 16% = 46.54
Hence, price will become less than 50% after the discount of 16%, and the discount will be more than 50%. 16% is the 8th discount.
Q.33. Identify the fallacy committed in the following
argument:
“There must be intelligent life on other planets. No
one has proven that there isn’t”.
(a) Appeal to ignorance
(b) False alternative
(c) Slippery slope
(d) Hasty Generalization
Option (a) is correct.
There must be intelligent life on other planets, no one has proven then there isn’t.
Given a statement has fallacy of appeal to ignorance it says that your conclusion must be true because there is no evidence of it.
Q.34. ‘Sound is eternal because it is produced’ refers to
which of the following Hetvabhasa?
(a) Badhita
(b) Virruddha
(c) Asiddha
(d) Savyabhicara
Option (c) is correct.
Generally, fallacy occurs when the middle term is a reason but not a correct reason.
Some commonly known fallacies are:
- Savyabhichara: This is the fallacy of irregular middle term.
- Viruddha: This is the fallacy when two contradictory statements are there for example sounded eternal because it is produced.
- Sat Pratipaka: When another middle term is included in the premises to prove the first middle term.
- Assiddha: When the middle term is unproved. For example, Gulab Jamun is sweet because it has Jamun which is a sweet fruit.
- Badhira: When the middle term is getting completed by another strong source of
Q35. Which of the following are true in the case of the
audience for analog media? They are:
(A) Personally addressable
(B) Active campaigners
(C) Large
(D) Heterogenous
(E) Anonymous
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B & C only
(b) B, C & D only
(c) A, B & E only
(d) C, D & E only
Option (a) is correct.
Analogue media is the media of mass level; it can have text, photographs and other media options. This is traditional media unlike digital media.
It is large audience covering media, having active campaigners. It can be personally addressable.
Q.36. Secretariate of Convention on Biodiversity (CBD)
is situated in
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, United States
(c) London, England
(d) Montreal, Canada
Option (d) is correct.
Convention on biodiversity held in 1992 and is in effect from 1993 was held in Rio de Janeiro, New York with the objective of conservatism of biodiversity of the world.
Secretariat of convention on biodiversity is situated in Montreal, Canada
Q.37. Which among the following are Natural Green
House Gases (GHGs)?
(A) CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
(B) H2O (Water vapor)
(C) CH4 (Methane)
(D) O3 (Ozone)
(E) CFC (Chlorofluorocarbon)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, B, C & D only
(b) A, C, D & E only
(c) B, C, D & E only
(d) A, B, C & E only
Option (d) is correct.
Greenhouse gasses are:
- Nitrogen dioxide
- CFC
- Carbon dioxide
- Water
- Methane
Q.38. “We become builders by building and we become
just be doing what is just” In the light of this
statement what can not be asserted?
(a) Man is a virtuous being
(b) Virtues are like skill
(c) Skills are acquired by performing relevant
activity
(d) Virtue is a mechanical and non-ethical skill.
Option (c) is correct.
“We become builders by building, and we become just by doing what is just“ the ‘skills acquired by performing relevant activity’ is the understanding or the context of the given statement.
Q.39. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The standard deviation of a series of
repeated measurements estimates the likely size
of the chance error in a single measurement.
Statement II: Bias affects all the measurements the
same way, pushing them in the same direction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Option (a) is correct.
Statement I is correct but biasness does not affect all the measurements in the same way. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
Q.40. If in a certain code ‘Generalization’ is written as
52627134819406, how the word ‘Oreganos’ be
written in that code?
(a) 07521680
(b) 07251608
(c) 07251806
(d) 72085106
Option (b) is correct.
G = 5
E = 2
N = 6
E = 2
R = 7
A = 1
L = 3
I = 4
Z = 8
A = 1
T = 9
I = 4
O = 0
N = 6
Hence, OREGANOS = 07251608
Q.41. Salary of a person decreases by 10% every year
and his bonus increases by 24% every year. If
his salary and bonuses at the end of 2020 were
` 8000 and ` 2500 respectively, find the difference
between his total earning in March, 2020 and
March 2022.
(a) ` 165, increase
(b) ` 176, increase
(c) ` 180, decrease
(d) ` 176, decrease
Option (d) is correct. Salary is decreased by 10% Bonus is increased by 24%
Salary in 2020 = 8000
Bonus in 2020 = 2500 Total monthly income = 10,500 For 2021,
Salary = 8000 – 10%
= 8000 – 800 = 7200
Bonus = 2500 + 24%
= 2500 + 600 = 3100
For 2022,
Salary = 7200-10%
= 7200 – 720 = 6480
Bonus = 3100 + 24%
= 3100 + 744 = 3844
Total monthly income = 10,324
Difference in total monthly income of march 2020 and march 2022 = 10500 – 10324 = 176 (decrease)
Q.42. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The centralised control of signs and
symbols of mediated communication may affect
plurality of opinions on the Internet.
Statement II: The global corporate owners of
Internet companies aim only at profits, not the
existence of pluriverse.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Option (c) is correct.
Statement I is true as centralization may affect the plurality of opinion in the communication process. But statement II is incorrect. The aim of global corporate owners is not only profit maximization but wealth maximization by increasing their goodwill and feedback of customers.
Q.43. Which of the following statements A-C are correct
about a Hard-Disk Drive (HDD) used as a storage
device in computer?
(A) It has no moving parts
(B) It is non-volatile
(C) It uses magnetic properties to store data
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A & B only
(b) A & C only
(c) B & C only
(d) A, B & C
Option (d) is correct.
HDD or hard disk drive is a type of secondary storage in Computers.
- It does not have internal moving
- It is non volatile
- It uses magnetic properties to store data
Q.44. Which aspect of the researcher may cause
psychosocial effect in the participant of a study?
(a) Age
(b) Race
(c) Sex
(d) Attitude
Option (d) is correct.
Attitude of a researcher can affect the results and outcome of research. Age, sex and race do not affect majorly.
Q.45. In the light of Buddhist system of education
students was expected to follow ‘Das Sikha
Padam’. Which of the following does not
represent the code of conduct:
(A) To avoid food at odd times
(B) To avoid untrue speech
(C) To relish music and dance
(D) To avoid stealing
(E) To accept gifts in charity
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(a) A & B
(b) B & C
(c) C & D
(d) C & E
Option (d) is correct.
Das Siksha Padani is a part of Buddhist education system. They are:
- Avoid Violence
- Avoid Stealing
- Avoid Bad Conduct
- Avoid untruth speech
- Avoid Intoxicating Material
- Avoid taking food at odd times
- Avoid Backbiting
- Stay away from dance and music
- Avoid luxury goods
- Renounce costly gift in charity
To relish dance and music and to accept gifts are not included in that.
Direction for Questions (46 -50):
Read the following passage and answer the question.
Given the precarious condition of its ground and surface
water resources (rivers, stream, lakes, wetlands and
reservoirs). India could be a water-scarce country in the
next 40 years. With 1,486 cubic meters (∼1.5 million litres)
of water available per person, per annum. India falls
in the water stressed category. A dip below 1000 cubic
meters per person, per annum will push it into the water
scarce category.
The manner of water consumption also compounds the
problem. Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) statistics
show the indiscriminate use of ground water turned 4%
of the total 7,809 assessed units in the country critical
in 2022 while 14% were assessed as over-exploited. The
situation was worse in 2017 when 17% of the units over
exploited. Various recharge and conservation efforts have
borne fruit but the number of such units remain high in
state like Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi, Tamil Nadu
and Karnataka.
In India, 87% of groundwater is extracted for irrigation
and experts say excess withdrawal round the year may
be the biggest reason for depletion, as the recharge
primarily happens in the monsoon. On the other hand
encroachment of water bodies and the discharge of
untreated waster water into rivers and streams have
reduced the surface water resources.
Q.46. Assuming that the total number of ground units
assessed by CWGB in the years 2017 and 2022
were same (i.e., 7089). What is the difference
between the number of over-exploited units in
2017 and 2022?
(a) ∼ 213
(b) ∼ 216
(c) ∼ 260
(d) ∼ 354
1. Option (a) is correct.
Assuming the number of ground units are same in the years 2017 and 2022 (i.e., 7089).
Number of over-exploited units in 2017 = 17% or 7089 × 17 / 100 = 1205 approx.
Number of over-exploited units in 2022 = 14% or 7089 + 14 / 100 = 992 approx.
Difference = 1205 – 992 = 213 Alternative method
Difference in percentage = 17 – 14 = 3% Difference between over-exploited units in 2017 and 2022 = 7089 × 3% = 213 approx.
Q.47. India will become water-scarce country if the
availability of water per person per annum falls
below:
(a) ∼ 1 million litre
(b) ∼ 1.5 million litre
(c) ∼ 1.2 million litre
(d) ∼ 100000 litre
Option (a) is correct.
According to the first paragraph of the given passage India will become a water scarce country if the availability of water per person per annum falls below 1000 cubic metres (1 million liter). The passage also says that India could be a water scarce country in the next 40 years with 1486 cubic meters of water available per person per annum.
Q.48. Which of the following states have been found to
be have high number of over exploited units of
ground water?
(A) Rajasthan and Delhi
(B) Punjab & Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu & Karnataka
(E) Madhya Pradesh
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
a) A, B, C & D only
(b) A, B & D only
(c) B, C, D & E only
(d) A, B, C, D & E
Option (b) is correct.
According to the given passage, the number of exploited water units remains high in states like Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
Q.49. In the year 2022 how many units of water assessed
by CGWB were found to be over-exploited?
(a) ∼ 283
(b) ∼ 992
(c) ∼ 1276
(d) ∼ 1006
Option (b) is correct.
Over-Exploited Units of water assessed by CGWB in 2022 = 14%
Total units = 7089
Over exploited units in 2022 = 7089 × 14%
= 992.46 or 992
Q.50. Identify the factors responsible for depletion of
water resources.
(A) High consumption of water in agricultural
sector
(B) High consumption of water in Commercial
sector
(C) Encroachment of water bodies
(D) Excessive water use in domestic sector
(E) Discharge of untreated waste water in rivers
and streams.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A, C, D & E only
(b) A, B, C & E only
(c) A, B, C, D & E
(d) A, C & E only
Option (d) is correct.
According to the last paragraph of the given passage 87% of groundwater is extracted from irrigation and experts say that access water withdrawal is the main reason for depletion. Other reasons are encroachment of water bodies, discharge of untreated wastewater into rivers and streams.
Other options can also be a reason for water depletion but the passage does not explain anything about them.
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