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UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper 1

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Previous Year Question

UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper 1 DECEMBER 2021 | Solved With Explanation

Question 1 – Which region of the brain is involved in our ability to learn new information, particularly if it is verbal? 

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Hippocampus
  3. Pons
  4. Thalamus

Answer:‐ Cerebrum
Explanation–
Cerebrum–  The largest part of the brain. It is divided into two hemispheres, or halves called the cerebral hemispheres. Areas within the cerebrum control muscle functions and also control speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning.

Question 2- mooKIT platform uses _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _, an open-source content management system. 

  1. DRUPAL
  2. JOOMLA
  3. SAKAI
  4. Moodle

Answer:‐ DRUPAL

 

Question 3- INFLIBNET Centre, which is an autonomous Inter‐University Centre of the University Grants Commission, maintains

  1. Swayam Prabha
  2. e‐Pathshala
  3. e‐Gyankosh
  4. Shodhganga

Answer:‐ Swayam Prabha

Explanation- Information and Library Network Centre is an organisation that promotes and facilitates libraries and information resources for Indian further education. Its premises are in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The Centre started in March 1991 as a project under the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics. This is an autonomous Inter‐University Centre of the University Grants Commission, maintained by Swayam Prabha which is an initiative of the Ministry of Human Resources Development to provide 32 High-Quality Educational Channels through DTH (Direct to home).

Question 4- Given below are two statements 

Statement I: According to Piaget, the ability to solve conservation problems depends on having an understanding of three basic aspects of reasoning: identity, compensation, and reversibility.

Statement II: The stage of classification does not depend on a student’s ability to focus on a single characteristic of objects in a set and group the objects according to that characteristic. 

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.
Jean William Fritz Piaget was a Swiss psychologist known for his work on child development. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development and epistemological view are together called “genetic epistemology”. Piaget placed great importance on the education of children

 

Question 5- According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model of human development, the microsystem constitutes ________________.

  1. Immediate family
  2. School
  3. Beliefs
  4. Customs
  5. Neighbourhood

Choose the Answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, C and E only
  3. A, B and E only
  4. C, D and E only

Answer:‐ A, B and C only
Explanation- According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model of human development, the microsystem constitutes Immediate family, School, and Beliefs 

 

Question 6- Which one of the following is an important characteristic of the researchers involved in a qualitative study? 

  1. Non‐partisan
  2. Reflexivity
  3. Transparency
  4. Enthusiasm

Answer:‐ Non‐partisan
Explanation-
Quantitative studies– is a kind of research strategy in which we usually focus on the data and numbers rather than on theory as we do in qualitative studies. It is an objective approach and gives more emphasis on clear-cut precision and disseminated facts. The deductive argument, also deductive logic, is the process of reasoning from one or more statements to reach a logical conclusion. Deductive reasoning goes in the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions.

 

Question 76 – Some of the types of hypothesis are as follows: 

  1. Descriptive
  2. Null
  3. Confounding
  4. Intervening
  5. Explanatory (Causal)

Choose the Answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A, B and D only
  4. A, B and E only

Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Explanation- The important aim of the research is not the development of a theory. It can be if it was qualitative research, in that we develop a theory however the research is not solely for the purpose of deriving a theory. Both facts and theory are important for doing the research. Type 1 error and type 2 error – are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research. Type 1- A type I error (false-positive) occurs if an investigator rejects a null hypothesis that is true in the population; a type II error (false-negative) occurs if the investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is false in the population.

Question 8- Given below are two statements 

Statement I: Exploration is particularly useful when researchers lack a clear idea of the problems they will meet during the study. 

Statement II: Through exploration, researchers develop concepts more clearly, establish priorities, develop operational definitions, and improve the final research design. 

In light of the above statements, choose the Answer from the options given below

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

 

Question 9- Survey research is based on one of the following?

  1. Constructivism
  2. Interpretivism
  3. Positivism
  4. Hermeneutics

Answer:‐ Constructivism

Explanation- The important aim of the research is not the development of a theory. It can be if it was qualitative research, in that we develop a theory however the research is not solely for the purpose of deriving a theory. Both facts and theory are important for doing the research. Type 1 error and type 2 error – are two types of errors that occurred while we do our research

Positivism– it was the era in which science started advancing and people started believing in science and logic behind everything and they accepted that everything is because of science and everything can be proved on the basics of facts. Only objectivity mattered to them. Human beings were the centre for them.

Post positivist- We can say post-positivists were a mixture of both. They believed in science with the acceptance that everything is not in the hands of human beings. there are some higher powers. Everything cannot be proved with objectivity. So they were both subjective and objective with their approach. They were realistic and accepted their own limitations. Hence, post-positivists were realistic in their approach.

 

Question 10- Which among the following are non‐parametric statistics? 

  1. t‐test
  2. F‐test
  3. Spearman’s rank-order correlation
  4. Mann‐Whitney‐Wilcoxon test
  5. Kendall coefficient of concordance

Choose the Answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. B, D and E only
  4. C, D and E only

Answer:‐ A, B and C only

Explanation- Nonparametric statistics is the branch of statistics that is not based solely on parametrized families of probability distributions. Nonparametric statistics are based on either being distribution-free or having a specified distribution but with the distribution’s parameters unspecified.

 

Question 11 – ________ messages have more or less the same meaning for the audience.

  1. Denotative
  2. Complex
  3. Connotative
  4. Abstract

Answer:‐ Denotative

Explanation- In linguistics and philosophy, the denotation of an expression is its literal meaning. For instance, the English word “warm” denotes the property of being warm. Denotation is contrasted with other aspects of meaning including connotation

 

Question 12- Which one of the following is an example of a technological barrier in communication?

  1. Physical locations of communicators
  2. Low bandwidth of internet
  3. Personal attitude towards technology
  4. Complexity of ideas

Answer:‐ Physical locations of communicators

Explanation- See, in many questions asked by UGC net, you can’t do it by applying formulas, especially in paper 1. In many questions, you only have to use your common sense,

Let’s say in the above question you can solve this answer by using your common sense and all you need to have is a little information about what topic they are asking.
In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

 

Question 13- The communication among persons working at different levels who have no direct reporting relationship is called:
1. Intrapersonal communication

  1. Upward communication
  2. Horizontal communication
  3. Diagonal communication

 

Answer:‐ Intrapersonal communication

Explanation– communication is the process through which we can express our feelings and emotions. Barriers are those things that act as hurdles in communication and are called barriers to communication. There are many different types of barriers. As we can see in the above-given options these culture, power and time are not any physical traits. Intrapersonal Communication- the communication which we do with ourselves is called intrapersonal communication. There is no involvement of any other person.
Like- diary writing, stream of consciousness, spirits talks and most important even once asked by ugc net is Dreams. Dreams are also part of intrapersonal communication.

Intrapersonal communication is the process by which an individual communicates within themselves, acting as both sender and receiver of messages, and encompasses the use of unspoken words to consciously engage in self-talk and inner speech.

Question 14- Marshall Mcluhan’s name is associated with the assertion: 

  1. The message is the medium
  2. The medium is the message
  3. The message determines the medium accurately
  4. A message is a message

 

Answer:‐ The message is the medium
Explanation-  Herbert Marshall McLuhan CC was a Canadian philosopher whose work is among the cornerstones of the study of media theory. He studied at the University of Manitoba and the University of Cambridge.

Question 15- Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: In classroom communication, teachers should acknowledge and take into account students’ views.

Reason R: In a classroom, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by establishing a viewpoint.

In light of the above statements, choose the Answer from the options given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  1. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  2. A is true but R is false
  3. A is false but R is true

Answer:‐ Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation- In these above types of questions what we have to do is we have to understand the meaning of each statement and then try to understand if both statements can make any sense and then here is a trick which can really help you while solving this type of question just put “Because” after reading the first given assertion. There is not any formula or magic trick which you can apply to solve these types of questions. With a deep understanding of concepts and by applying common sense and a little bit of presence of mind you can easily solve these types of questions.

 

Question 16- How many terms are there in the series 168, 175, 182,_ _ _ _, 266?

  1. 13
  2. 14
  3. 15
  4. 16

Answer:‐ 13

Explanation- First of all you should try to take the differences. If the first difference does not give anything significant, you can go for the second difference i.e. the difference of the differences.

 

Question 17- Given below are two statements 

Statement I: The compound interest on ₹280 for 18 months at 10 % per annum is ₹44.3.

Statement II: At a 5.6 % rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 15 years In light of the above statements, choose the Answer from the options given below

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Question 18- The average of ten numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 11, then the average of the new set of numbers is:

  1. 82
  2. 72
  3. 78
  4. 77

Answer:‐ 82

Explanation- For your reference,
The mean of 10 numbers is 7 If each number is multiplied by 12 then the mean of the new set of numbers is a Total of 10 numbers =10×7=70… If each number is multiplied by 12… New Total =70×12 divide by 10= 84

Question 19 – Which of the following fractions is the smallest? 

  1. 65/80
  2. 11/16
  3. 5/8
  4. 29/40

 

Answer:‐ 65/80

Explanation– To compare the fractions, first of all, we go with the denominator. If the denominator is the same as all the fractions then we will compare only the numerator. The fraction that has the smallest numerator will be the smallest fraction.

UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper 1

Question 20- A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of ₹71. The number of 20 paise coins is 20

  1. 144
  2. 124
  3. 200
  4. 125

Answer:‐ 124

For your reference, see this example and then try to solve this question. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs. 71. The number of 25-paise coins is?
Let there are n 25 paise coins. So n×25+(324-n)20=7100, or 25n-20n=7100-6480=620, or 5n=620, n=620÷5=124. So there are 124 numbers of 25 paise coins.

 

Question 21- Given below are two statements 

Statement I: Truth and Falsehood are predicates of Arguments 

Statement II: Validity and Invalidity are predicates of Statements In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below 

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

 

Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation–  An argument is valid when the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion. The process that gives no rational grounds for accepting the conclusion is a defective form of an argument known as a fallacy. Fallacies can be used positively, to avoid or expose error or they can be used for negative means, to deceive.

 

Question 22- Identify the fallacy committed in the argument: Some birds are not beautiful creatures. All dogs are beautiful creatures. Therefore, no dogs are birds.

  1. Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term
  2. Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Major Term
  3. Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Minor Term
  4. Fallacy of Exclusive Premises

 

Answer:‐ Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term
Explanation– Fallacies are errors in arguments that deceive our minds. It is a defect in an argument that consists of something other than merely false premises. As we see, fallacies can be committed in many ways, but usually, they involve either a mistake in reasoning or the creation of some illusion that makes a bad argument appear good or bad (either). An argument is valid when the truth of the premises guarantees the truth of the conclusion. The process that gives no rational grounds for accepting the conclusion is a defective form of an argument known as a fallacy. Fallacies can be used positively, to avoid or expose error or they can be used for negative means, to deceive.
Ethos- Ethos is an argument that appeals to ethical authority or credibility.[ ] Pathos- pathos is an argument that appeals to emotions. Fallacies are usually divided into two groups: Formal and Informal Groups.

 

Question 23– If ‘All men are mortal’ is given as True, then which of the following options can be validly inferred from it?

Choose the Answer from the options given below:

Answer:‐ A, B and C only

 

Question 24- Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: According to Naiyāyikas, the fallacy of Savyabhicāra occurs when the middle term leads to different opposite conclusions. 

Reason R: When the middle term is irregular, it is distributively not related to the major term.

In light of the above statements, choose the Answer from the options given below

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true

Answer:‐ Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

 

Question 25- Match List I with List II

List I
Steps in Inference
A. Thesis (Pratijñā)
B. Reason (Hetu)
C. Example (Udāharaṇa)
D. Application (Upanaya)
List II
Statements
I. Because of smoke
II. Wherever there is smoke, there is fire, as in the kitchen
III. The mountain has fire
IV. The mountain also has smoke accompanied by fire, like the kitchen

Choose the Answer from the options given below:

  1. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV
  2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I
  3. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV
  4. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV

Answer:‐ A-III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

Question 26- The number of characters in 8-bit ASCII code (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) 

  1. 64
  2. 128
  3. 256
  4. 512

Answer:‐ 64

 

Question 27- The Post Office protocol is

  1. Protocol used for transfer of files from one computer to another computer
  2. Protocol used to handle email attachments
  3. Protocol used when receiving emails from the email server
  4. Protocol used for sending emails

Answer:‐ Protocol used for transfer of files from one computer to another computer
Explanation- The post office protocol (POP) is the most commonly used message request protocol in the Internet world for transferring messages from an e-mail server to an e-mail client. With POP3, the e-mail client requests new messages from the e-mail server, and the server “pops” all new messages out to the client.

 

Question 28- Given below are two statements regarding the Router 

Statement I: It enables data packets to be routed between different networks. 

Statement II: It works in the Data Link Layer. 

In light of the above statements, choose the Answer from the options given below

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation– A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet.

 

Question 29- Following are some statements regarding File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Choose the correct statements 

  1. It is used to access the world wide web (www)
  2. It is used to download data from file servers
  3. It is used for very small files
  4. Files are transferred from one device to another

Choose the Answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only
  2. A and C only
  3. B and D only
  4. B and C only

Answer:‐ A and B only Explanation- The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard Communication Protocol used for the transfer of Computer Files from a server to a client on a Computer Network. FTP is built on a client-server model architecture using separate control and data connections between the client and the server.  FTP users may authenticate themselves with a clear-text sign-in protocol, normally in the form of a username and password, but can connect anonymously if the server is configured to allow it. For secure transmission that protects the username and password, and encrypts the content,

 

Question 30- The number of Sustainable Development Goals is 

  1. 13
  2. 15
  3. 17
  4. 19

Answer:‐ 13


Explanation- The Sustainable Development Goals or Global Goals are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a “blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all”. The SDGs were set up in 2015 by the United Nations General Assembly and are intended to be achieved by 2030.

Question 31- Given below are two statements 

Statement I: Small amount of atmospheric Nitrogen dioxide NO is produced from polluting sources 

Statement II: Most of the atmospheric NO is produced due to photochemical reactions in the atmosphere

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

 

Question 32- Which of the following water-borne diseases may be caused by viruses, bacteria and protozoa? 

  1. Cholera
  2. Hepatitis
  3. Typhoid
  4. Diarrhea

Answer:‐ Cholera
Explanation- Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. Cholera causes severe diarrhoea and dehydration. Left untreated, cholera can be fatal within hours, even in previously healthy people. Modern sewage and water treatment have virtually eliminated cholera in industrialized countries.

 

Question 33- United Nations Environmental Program (UNEP) was the result of deliberations held during 

  1. Human Environmental Conference at Stockholm in 1972
  2. Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro in 1992
  3. Montreal Protocol 1987
  4. Kyoto Protocol 1997

Answer:‐ Human Environmental Conference at Stockholm in 1972
Explanation– The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading environmental authority in the United Nations system. UNEP uses its expertise to strengthen environmental standards and practices while helping implement environmental obligations at the country, regional and global levels. UNEP’s mission is to provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their quality of life without compromising that of future generations. UNEP re-organised its work programme into six strategic areas as part of its move to results-based management. The selection of six areas of concentration was guided by scientific evidence, the UNEP mandate and priorities emerging from global and regional forums.

 

Question 34- Which of the following states has maximum installed wind power as per MNRE’s latest report? 

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Karnataka
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Maharashtra

Answer:‐ Andhra Pradesh

 

Question- #35 Global Citizenship Education promotes 

  1. Common international laws for global citizenship
  2. Issues pertaining to citizenship across countries involving VISA
  3. International public relations
  4. More peaceful, tolerant, inclusive, secure and sustainable societies

Answer:‐ Common international laws for global citizenship
Explanation- Global Citizenship Education inspires and empowers individuals to Reflect on their biases and assumptions. Value diversity and inclusion. Develop a greater understanding of countries, communities, and cultures around the world; events shaping our world.

 

Question- #36 CBCS is 

  1. Criteria-Based Choice System
  2. Choice-Based Credit System
  3. Criteria-Based Creditable Scores
  4. Credit-Based Choice Scores

Answer:‐ CHOICE BASED CREDIT SYSTEM (CBCS): Explanation- The CBCS provides an opportunity for the students to choose courses from the prescribed courses comprising core, elective/minor or skill-based courses. The courses can be evaluated following the grading system, which is considered to be better than the conventional marks system.

 

Question 37- Given below are two statements

Statement I: Policy action and implementation plans require sound database systems at the regional level only. 

Statement II: The statistical system should ensure its impeccability with data architecture, security, quality, cleaning and integration. 

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Answer:‐ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

 

Question 38- Education, the NEP proposes to set up HECI (Higher Education Commission of India). Which of the following are verticals of HECI? 

  1. NHERC
  2. NAS
  3. HEGC
  4. NCIVE
  5. NAC

Question- Choose the Answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. B, C and E only
  3. A, C and E only
  4. C, D and E only

Answer:‐ A, B and C only

 

Question 39- Match List I with List II 

 

List I
A. Indian Institute of Advanced Study
B. Indian Biological Sciences and Research Institute
C. Indian Institute of Soil Science
D. Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research
List II
I. Noida, UP
ll. Shimla, HP
III. Bhopal, MP
IV. Lucknow, UP

Choose the Answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

  1. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I
  2. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I
  3. A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

Answer:‐ A-II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

 

Question 40 – Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

Leadership studies are an emergent discipline, and the concept of leadership will continue to change. Leadership lore is defined as an influence relationship among leaders and followers who want real change and outcomes that reflect their shared purpose. Leadership involves influence. It occurs among people; those people who intentionally desire significant changes, and the changes reflect purpose shared by the leaders and their followers. Influence means that the relationship among people is not passive; however, also part of this definition is that influence is multidirectional. It does not use orders or threats to make somebody do something. The basic cultural values in America make it easiest to think of leadership as something a leader does to a follower. However, leadership has an effect in both directions. In most organizations, superiors influence subordinates, but subordinates also influence superiors. The people involved in the relationship want real and important changes‐ leadership involves creating change, not maintaining what normally happens. In addition, the changes sought are not dictated by leaders, but reflect purposes that leaders and followers share. Moreover, change is toward an outcome that the leaders and followers both want; a desired future or shared purpose that motivates them toward this more preferable outcome. An important aspect of leadership is influencing others to come together around a common vision. Thus, leadership involves the influence of people to bring about change toward a desirable future

Explanation- Tip- Albeit, there is no hard and fast rule to solve comprehension. You can solve comprehension by doing more and more practice. Students usually take these types of questions for granted but you need to understand that this is a very complex topic and this deserves as much attention as you give to other topics. There are some rules which you can follow,

Question 40 – Leadership studies are an emerging discipline”, means: ‘

  1. Leadership studies are an established field
  2. Leadership studies are a valid field of research
  3. Leadership studies is an evolving domain of scholarship
  4. Leadership studies is an elaborate field

Answer:‐ Leadership studies are an established field

 

Question 41- What variables are used for defining leadership?

  1. Power to affect relationships and desire for change in the true sense of the team
  2. Power to get things done quickly by the influence
  3. Power to change and control
  4. Power to effect and desire for mandated change

Answer:‐ Power to affect relationships and desire for change in the true sense of the team

 

Question 42 – What is the main theme of this passage? 

  1. Explanation of leadership construct
  2. Argument about leadership
  3. Models of leadership
  4. Pros and cons of leadership

Answer:‐ Explanation of leadership construct

 

Question 43- What should be the outcome of leadership actions?

  1. Movement towards the vision of the leader
  2. Movement towards a common vision of the leader and the followers
  3. Movement towards the vision of the majority
  4. Strengthening of the authority of leaders

Answer:‐ Movement towards the vision of the leader

 

Question-44 The concept of leadership discussed in this passage is

  1. Vertical‐top down
  2. Horizontal
  3. Individualistic
  4. Exceptional

Answer:‐ Vertical‐top down

 

Question 45- Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow In the following table, the total Exports and Imports of 5 countries over 4 years (in Rs Crore) is given. Study the table carefully and answer the given questions. (I‐import, E‐export)

Explanation– Let’s understand how we can solve these Data integration problems. If you are a humanities student like me, Data interpretation is a big ghost for us. When I was preparing for this exam initially I used to ignore data interpretation. However, you can’t deny that this is very crucial and you can’t crack this exam without data interpretation. Here are a few tips which I used during my preparation days, which I hope will help you as well.

  1. Try to solve simple problems like addition, subtraction, dividing and multiplying. You might be thinking that you are good with this but with this I mean you should be able to solve this without paper and pen.
  2. Try to solve percentages and average questions. These two topics are the base of Data integration. You can’t even think of solving Data integration problems without these two topics. Solve as much as you can.
  3. Then last but not least, timings matter the most while solving these questions. Questions are easy but lengthy. You can solve all these questions but the game is of time. You have to solve these 5 questions in only 10 minutes otherwise you won’t be able to solve other questions which are of equal weightage.
  4. Practise as much as you can.

Question#46- Find out the difference between the average export and average import for the country P. 

  1. 8.25
  2. 7.75
  3. 8.50
  4. 7.25

Answer:‐ 8.25

 

Question 47- Which country has the maximum percentage of profit increase from 2019 to 2020? (Profit = Export-Import)

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S

Answer:‐ P

 

Question 48- Which year has the maximum export?

  1. 2017
  2. 2018
  3. 2019
  4. 2020

Answer:‐ 2017

 

Question 49 – Which year has the minimum average import? 

  1. 2017
  2. 2018
  3. 2019
  4. 2020

Answer:‐ 2017

UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper 1

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Research Aptitude Exam Notes

 

 

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